Updated March 29, 2001
As you consider the "debate" over "reparations for slavery" consider
this:
Since the passage of the original Civil Rights Act in 1964, many billions of dollars --
even trillions -- have been paid to U.S. blacks in the form of racial job quotas and
racial preferences which have mandated that a certain proportion of blacks be hired and/or
promoted over whites. The U.S. Goverment Accounting Office and the Office of
Management and Budget are reluctant to publish these politically incorrect figures, but
they are an historic and undeniable fact.
Additionally, hundreds of billions of dollars have also been paid to poverty-level black
families via welfare entitlements during this same period. The U.S. Government
Accounting Office and the Office of Management and Budget figures on this score are quite
telling.
Since these huge "reparations" have already been paid, and if blacks still feel
they are not succeeding in the U.S., one must logically ask: Who, really, is
responsible for their perceived failure?
Consider the following historic facts regarding slavery of blacks (nominally Africans)
over the centuries:
The West African state of Benin was known in the 17th century as "Dahomey", and
they ruthlessly rounded up tribespeople and sold them to Spanish, European, and American
slave traders. 20th century Benin recently apologized for the role it played in the
American slave trade. Luc Gnacadja, Benins minister of environment and housing, told
a Richmond, Virginia, audience "We cry for forgiveness and reconciliation"
during a state visit on Saturday, April 29.
But American blacks arent very impressed by Benins acknowledgment of its role
in the slave trade. The reason? Benin is a poor country and has no money to offer for
"reparations". The reported per capita income in Benin today is $400 per year.
Thus, American blacks really dont care how much responsibility the West African
state of Benin may have had for selling their fellow Africans into slavery. So much for
justice.
During the height of the slave trade, the African nation of Senegal profited greatly by
using its island of Goree as a major shipping point for slaves bound for many foreign
markets, including the U.S. To date, not one American black has demanded payment of
"reparations" from Senegal. Hmmm.
According to author and racial historian David Horowitz, "It was not whites but black
Africans who first enslaved their brothers and sisters. They were abetted by dark-skinned
Arabs ... who organized the slave trade. Are reparations going to be assessed against the
descendants of Africans and Arabs for their role in slavery? There were also 3,000 black
slave owners in the antebellum United States. Are reparations to be paid by their
descendants too?"
Also according to Horowitz: "American blacks on average enjoy per capita
incomes in the range of 20 to 50 times [2000% to 5000%] those of blacks living in any of
the African nations from which they were kidnapped."
Also according to Horowitz: "West Indian blacks in America are also descended
from slaves, but their average incomes are equivalent to the average incomes of whites
(and nearly 25 percent higher than the average incomes of American-born blacks of all
classes). How is it that slavery adversely affected one large group of descendants but not
the other? And how can government be expected to decide an issue that is so
subjectiveyet so criticalto the case? The fact is that nobody has demonstrated
any clearly defined causal connection between slavery or discrimination and the
"disparities" that are alleged to require restitution."
The buying and selling of African people into slavery had been practiced for hundreds, and
even thousands, of years before the United States even existed! Furthermore, many of
the "buyers and sellers" were not white or even European. Since the U.S.
didn't exist at that time, and since the volume of Africans sold into slavery in the
pre-U.S. period far exceeds the number of slaves sold to U.S. citizens, shouldn't the bulk
of "reparations" be paid by this historic enslavers and not by U.S. citizens?
The majority of U.S. citizens alive today (both non-white and white) descended from
post-Civil War immigrants to this great nation! The descendants of these post-Civil
War immigrants thus have no ancestors who ever participated in any way in slavery.
The largest historic surges in immigration to the U.S. took place after 1880 (15 years
after the Emancipation Proclamation), and after 1960 (95 years after the Emancipation
Proclamation). Should not the descendants of these immigrants be excluded from paying
"reparations"? Should not the black descendants of these post-slavery
black immigrants be excluded from receiving "reparations"?
END More Historic Facts Against Reparations |